Note: The following is written in
the language that is intended as an invitation (Daw'ah) to Christians,
from their biblical perspective.
Question No.1
Jesus said: "I and the Father are one" (Jn.10:30),
therefore, is not Jesus the same, or, "co-equal" in status with his Father?
Answer No.1
In Greek, `heis' means `one' numerically (masc.)
`hen' means `one' in unity or essence (neut.)
Here the word used by John is `hen' and not `heis'.
The marginal notes in New American Standard Bible (NASB) reads; one - (Lit.neuter)
a unity, or, one essence.
If one wishes to argue that the word `hen'
supports their claim for Jesus being "co-equal" in status with his Father,
please invite his/her attention to the following verse:
Jesus said: "And the glory which Thou hast given
me, I have given
to them (disciples); that they may be one, just
as we are one." (John 17:22).
If he/she was to consider/regard/believe the
Father and Jesus Christ to be "one" meaning "co-equal" in status on the
basis of John 10:30, then that person should also be prepared to consider/regard/believe
"them" - the disciples of Jesus, to be "co-equal" in status with the Father
and Jesus ("just as we are one") in John 17:22. I have yet to find a person
that would be prepared to make the disciples (students) "co-equal" in status
with the Father or Jesus.
The unity and accord was of the authorized
divine message that originated from the Father, received by Jesus and finally
passed on to the disciples. Jesus admitted having accomplished the work
which the Father had given him to do. (Jn.17:4)
Hot Tip (precise and pertinent)
Jesus said: "I go to the Father; for the Father
is greater than I." (Jn.14:28). This verse unequivocally refutes the claim
by any one for Jesus being "co-equal" in status with his Father.
Question No.2
Jesus said: "I am the way, ...no one comes to
the Father, but through me." (Jn.14:6), therefore, is not the Salvation
through Jesus, ALONE?
Answer No.2
Before Jesus spoke these words, he said; "In
my Father's house are many mansions (dwelling places); if it were not so,
I would have told you; for I go to prepare a mansion (a dwelling place)
for you." (John 14:2). The above explicit statement confirms that Jesus
was going to prepare "a" mansion and not "all" the mansions in "my Father's
house". Obviously, the prophets that came before him and the one to come
after, were to prepare the other mansions for their respective followers.
The prophet that came after Jesus had evidently shown the current "way"
to a modern mansion in the kingdom of heaven.
Besides; the verse clearly states; Jesus was
the "WAY" to a mansion. It is a folly to believe that Jesus (or any prophet)
was the "DESTINATION".
One who crosses over the "way" will reach the
mansion. Anyone that stops on the "way" and believes the "way" to be the
end of his/her journey, will be out in the open without any shelter and
a roof.
Hot Tip (precise and pertinent)
Jesus said; "Not every one that says to me; `Lord,
Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven; but he who does the will of my
Father, who is in heaven." (Mt.7:21).
Question No.3
Jesus said: "He who has seen me has seen the
Father" (Jn.14:9), does this not prove that Jesus Christ and his Father
were one and the same?
Answer No.3
One day to prove a point and settle an argument,
Jesus picked up a child and said to his disciples; "Whoever receives this
child in my name receives me; and whoever receives me receives Him who
sent me;" (Luke 9:48).
Jesus said; "He who believes in me does not
believe in me, but in Him who sent me." (John 12:44)
"He who hates me hates my Father also. ...but
now they have both seen and hated me and my Father as well." (John 15:23-24)
"And this is eternal life, that they may know
Thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast sent." (John 17:3).
The call of sincerity demands that if believing
in the Truth is the honest intention then one could only pass an ethical
judgement after reflecting upon all the relevant texts.
John 17:3 (quoted above), if read with the
following verse clears the air.
Hot Tip (precise and pertinent)
Jesus said; "Truly, truly, I say to you, a slave
is not greater than his master; neither one who is sent greater than the
one who sent him." (John 13:16).
During his ministry, Jesus repeatedly said
he was sent by his Father.
Question No.4
The Bible; "For God so loved the world, that
He gave His only begotten son, that whoever believes in him should not
perish, but have eternal life." (John 3:16); should you not believe in
Jesus to have eternal life?
Answer No.4
Of course, we believe in Jesus for what he was
and we do not believe in what he was not. We Muslims believe Jesus was
a Messiah;
"Spirit from God"; "Word of God"; the righteous
Prophet as well as Messenger of God and the son of Virgin Mary. But, we
do not believe Jesus was "the begotten son of God." The truth of the matter
is apostle John never ever wrote; Jesus was "the begotten" son of God.
Please obtain a copy of the `Gideon Bible'
from a Hotel or Motel near you. It is distributed free since 1899, all
over the world, by The Gideon Society. In the beginning of this famous
Bible, John 3:16 is translated in 26 popular world languages. You may be
amazed to discover that in the English translation, the editors have used
the traditionally accepted term "His only begotten son." Whereas, in several
other languages the editors have used the term "His unique son" or "His
one of a kind son."
In 1992, when I discovered this textual variations,
I wrote letters to various universities in North America requesting them
to confirm the original Greek term used by John. Below is a copy of the
response received from The George Washington University:- John 3:16 and
John 1:18 each have the word `monogenes' in Greek. This word ordinarily
means "of a single kind". As a result, "unique" is a good translation.
The reason you sometimes find a translation that renders the word as "only
begotten" has to do with an ancient heresy within the church. In response
to the Arian claim that Jesus was made but not begotten, Jerome (4th century)
translated the Greek term `monogenes' into Latin as `unigenitus' ("only
begotten").
Paul B. Duff, 22 April, 1992.
Professor Duff's response was based upon `Anchor
Bible', volume 29, page 13-14. The Greek term for "begotten" is `gennao'
as found in Mt.1:2, which John did not use.
Hot Tip (precise and pertinent)
Jesus said to Mary; "...go to my brethren, and
say to them, I ascend to my Father and your Father..." (John 20:17). This
verse demonstrates that the usage of term `Father' was purely metaphorical.
As for Jesus being a "unique son", he, unlike us, was created without a
physical Father.
Question No.5
Jesus said: "Truly, truly. I say to you, unless
one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God." (John 3:3); I am
a "born again" Christian, are you a "born again" Muslim?
Answer No.5
The truth of the matter is apostle John did not
use the phrase "born again". The Greek text reveals, the phrase used by
John is "born from above". The Greek word used by John is `anothen' (`ano'
+ `then'). `ano' means `above' and the suffix `then' denotes `from'.
Hence, what Jesus said was "unless one is
born from above, he cannot see the kingdom of God." And, that sounds logical.
Since none of the living creature is "born from above", no one can see
the kingdom heaven during his life time. The concept of being "born again"
to see the kingdom of heaven is an innovation to instill the concept of
Baptism.
The same word `anothen' appears in the same
Gospel and in the same chapter in verse 31. Here the editors have translated
the word as "from above" and not "again".
To enter the Kingdom of Heaven one has to keep
the Commandments. God's distinguished Command known as the `Covenant of
Circumcision' (physically, "in the flesh of your foreskin") was an everlasting
Covenant (Compact,Treaty) between God and man. See Genesis 17:10-14.
Can an everlasting Treaty be abrogated or
revoked unilaterally? Did Jesus abrogate it? No. Jesus was circumcised
in the flesh (Luke 2:21). We, Muslim males, are circumcised. Are the male
Christians circumcised in the "flesh of their foreskins"?
If not, please read the following verse:-
Hot Tip
Jesus said; "Whoever then annuls (discards) one
of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called
least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever keeps and teaches them, he
shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven." (Matt. 5:19).
Question No.6
Jesus said; "Go therefore and make disciples
of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son
and the Holy Spirit," (Matthew 28:19); does this not prove that the `Doctrine
of Trinity' and its present day formula was communicated and promulgated
by Jesus Christ himself?
Answer No.6
With all due respect, we tend to disagree in
view of the following
compelling evidences:-
Hot Tip
"And Peter said to them, `Repent, and let each
of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your
sins;...'" (Acts 2:38). It is most unlikely that apostle Peter would have
disobeyed the specific command of Jesus Christ for baptising in the three
names and baptized them in the name of Jesus Christ, alone.
Question No.7
Apostle John in his first Epistle, chapter 5
and verse 7 wrote:
"For there are three that bear record in heaven,
the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one."; is
this not a fair testimony to acknowledge the `Doctrine of Trinity'?
Answer No.7
Hot Tip
Notwithstanding the above rejections, the verse
that follows the quoted text reads in KJV; "And there are three that bear
witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood; and these three
agree in one." (1John5:8). Are these three witnesses "co-equal"? Can blood
be substituted with water? Can water be regarded as the same in any respect
with the Spirit? Just as the spirit, the blood and the water are three
separate entities, so are the first three witnesses, namely; the Father,
the Son (Word, Logos) and the Holy Spirit (Ghost).
Question No.8
Jesus said:"He who believes in the son has eternal
life; but he who does not obey the son shall not see life, but the wrath
of God abides on him." (John 3:36); are you not under the wrath of God
for not being a follower of Christ - a Christian, by belief?
Answer No.8
It is an interesting question. In fact, we Muslims
should be asking the question to you the followers of Christ. Do the vast
majority of Christians truthfully believe Christ for what he said he was,
and, truly understand his commands and obey them?
We believe, most of the followers who claim
to be Christians do not even understand the implications of calling their
Leader or Lord;
"Christ". (The readers will understand what
I mean by the last sentence, once they go through the rest of the text).
Here is the answer to your question. The above
verse has two parts. `Belief' and `Obedience'. On the subject of Belief
in Christ, Jesus asked his disciples;
"But who do you say that I am? And Peter answered
and said, "The Christ of God." (Luke 9:20). Peter did not say God or a
god. We Muslims truly believe Jesus was "The Christ (al-Masih) of God".
The expression "The Christ of God" literally
means; "The one that was anointed by God himself". Please go back in time
and think.
God performed the ceremony of anointing (physically
or spiritually) and for that reason, Jesus became "The Christ of God".
Now may I please ask you a simple question. Who is greater and exalted;
the one who anointed, or, the one who got anointed? Since God anointed
Jesus, God is the greater and exalted between the two, which we Muslims,
do truly believe. But surprisingly, the followers who say Jesus is "Christ",
don't.
Hot Tip
"...Thy holy Servant Jesus, whom Thou didst anoint,..."
(Acts 4:27 - New American Standard Bible).
This leaves no room for doubt that Jesus was
a `Servant of God'.
Besides, there are other verses which declare
Jesus; God's Servant.
Now let us go to the second part of the quoted
verse; "obeying the Christ". Please read the following verse and ask yourself
a question; have I obeyed?
"Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears
my word, and believes Him who sent me, has eternal life, and does not come
into judgement, but has passed out of death into life." John 5:24 Have
I believed and placed my trust basically, fundamentally and predominately
in Him or in Jesus?
Hot Tip
Jesus said; "But I do not seek my glory; there
is One who seeks and judges." John 8:51. Who is this "One", who is not
Jesus? Have you basically, essentially and fundamentally glorified the
"One" or Jesus?
Please remember, the "One" will be the Judge
on the Day of Judgement and not Jesus. If you disbelieve or disobey the
above word of Jesus please read the verse quoted by you and then think
about the "wrath of God".
Question No.9
In the Book of Genesis 1:26, we read; "And God
said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness..."; does not the
use of terms "us" and "our" prove that the God which created man was not
a singular entity, furthermore, does it not support the Johnannine concept
(John 1:3); all things came into being through Jesus?
Answer No.9
1. Below is an extract from a commentary for
the above verse, written by the editors of King James Version (The Hebrew-Greek
Key Study Bible, 6th edition):
-
"The Hebrew word for God is `Elohim' (430), a
plural noun. In Genesis 1:1, it is used in grammatical agreement with a
singular verb `bara' (1254), created. When plural pronouns are used, "Let
us make man in our image after our likeness," does it denote a plural of
number or the concept of excellence or majesty which may be indicated in
such a way in Hebrew? Could God be speaking to angels, the earth, or nature
thus denoting Himself in relation to one of these? Or is this a germinal
hint of a distinction in the divine personality? One cannot be certain."
-
Having written "One cannot be certain", the editors
try to advocate the theory of Jesus, as the "essential (internal) unity
of Godhead."
2. The response to your question, as well as,
to the commentators remark; "One cannot be certain", lies not very far,
but in the next verse (Genesis 1:27), which reads; "And God created man
in His own image,..." This statement tells us that the actual act of creation
when performed, was performed by "Him" and in "His" image and not by "Us"
in "Our" image.
Hot Tip
As a closing conclusive argument, here is a statement
of truth from Jesus himself; "And he (Jesus) answered and said unto them,
`Have you not read, that He which made them at the beginning made them
male and female." (Matthew 19:4). This statement by Jesus also negates
the so called Johnannine concept put forward by you (NOT by apostle John);
"all things came into being through Jesus."
Question No.10
In the Gospel of John, we find that eight days
after his resurrection, Jesus stood before his disciples and asked the
unbelieving Thomas to feel his hands and side, to verify the nail marks
and spear scar. After seeing the hands and the side, Thomas said to Jesus;
"My Lord and my God." If Jesus was not God, he would have certainly reprimanded
Thomas, but he did no such thing, does this not prove, `Jesus was God'?
Answer No.10
Please allow me quote from the `New American
Standard Bible' the entire text as it appears in Ch.20:27-28 from John's
Gospel:
"Then he (Jesus) said to Thomas, "Reach here
your finger, and
see my hands, and reach here your hand, and put
it into my side; and be not unbelieving, but believing." Thomas answered
and said to him, "My Lord and my God!"
Hot Tip
Apostle John writes, immediately after the discourse
between Jesus and Thomas; "Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed
in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but
these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ..."
If John had recognized the answer by Thomas to be a testimony for the `Deity
of Jesus' and the observed silence by Jesus to be his acquiesce to such
a testimony, then John would have written "Jesus is the God" and not "Jesus
is the Christ..."
Question No.11
Apostle Matthew records that Jesus was worshipped
by Magi that came from the East (2:11); by the boat people (14:33); by
Mary Magdalene and the other Mary (28:9); and also by his disciples on
a mountain in Galilee (28:17). Since worshipping any one other than God
is a fundamental sin, why did not Jesus stop these people from worshipping
him, unless he was God himself?
Answer No.11
1. For your information, none of the above worshipped
Jesus. Nor, did apostle Matthew record it so. According to the lexical
aids to the Bible, the proper Greek word for `worship' is `sebomai' (4576)
from the root `seb'. That word `sebomai' is used by apostle Matthew in
15:9 where Jesus said; "But in vain do they worship me,..."
-
The Greek word used by the apostle in the above
quotes is `prosekunesan' and not `sebomai'. `Prosekunesan' comes from `proskuneo'
(4352), which literally means bow, crouch, crawl, kneel or prostrate. If
the apostle wanted to convey; `Jesus was worshipped', he would have used
the word `sebomai' which he did not.
2. To prove the point further, in `New English
Bible' the translations of the quoted verses read; `bowed to the ground'
in (2:11); `fell at his feet' in (14:33); `falling prostrate before him'
in (28:9), and `fell prostrate before him' in (28:17).
3. The question of Jesus stopping them for
worshipping, therefore does not arise, because they simply bowed or prostrated
to him.
Hot Tip
Apostle Mark records in 10:17-18; "And as he
(Jesus) was setting out on a journey, a man ran up to him and knelt before
him and began asking him, "Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit the
eternal life?" And Jesus said to him, "Why do you call me good? No one
is good except God alone." It sounds inharmonious and inconsistent that
a person who even refuses to be called "good" could have allowed any one
to worship him.
Since, no one is good except "God alone",
should not Christians be worshipping directly to that solitary God to whom
Jesus himself prayed more than a dozen times, according to the Gospels?
Question No.12
When prophet Moses asked God; What was His name?
What shall he say to his people? From behind the Burning Bush God replied;
"I AM THAT I AM." God also asked Moses to say to the sons of Israel: "I
AM hath sent me unto you." Exodus 3:14.
When confronted by Jews; "Jesus said unto
them, `Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." (John
8:58 K.J.V.). Jesus also said; "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall
die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die
in your sins. (John 8:24, K.J.V.). Does that not prove, Jesus existed before
his birth; he was the One who spoke to Moses from behind the Burning Bush;
and if you do not believe that, you will die in your sins?
Answer No.12
Your question is based upon a simple conjecture.
Even the editors of K.J.V. insinuate that fact. Under the foot note of
Exodus 3:14 the editors write; "Jesus probably alluded to this name of
God in John 8:58, `Before Abraham was, I AM." The use of phrase "probably
alluded" clearly indicates it is not an established reality. My dear friend,
a surmise can never take place of (replace) an acknowledged statement.
This is what Jesus said; "...I am he, and that I do nothing of myself;
but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things." (John 8:28). God
of Moses that claimed "I AM THAT I AM" had no instructor or tutor, and,
needed no tutoring. If God had an instructor or an educator, then what
would you call that entity? God's mentor or boss??
As for the existence of Jesus before his birth,
please remember Jesus was anointed by God before he was born. Hence, he
was called Christ (Messiah). Besides Jesus, there were others who were
either anointed, consecrated or made holy, before their births. (see Ps.
89:20, Is. 45:1, 61:1; 1 Sam. 24:6). God did take a solemn covenant from
Novah, Abraham, Moses, Jesus - son of Mary, and Muhammad before they were
sent, reveals the Qur'an. Bible records, God came to prophet Jeremiah and
said to him;
"Before I formed you in the womb I knew you,
and before you were born I consecrated you; I have appointed you a prophet
to the nations." Jeremiah 1:5.
I have question for you. How would you explain
this ensuing statement? Jesus said to Jews; "Your father Abraham rejoiced
to see my day, and he saw it, and was glad." (John 8:56)
Hot Tip
When Jews were doubtful about the identity of
a particular blind beggar who had been healed by Jesus, the blind beggar
- who was no more blind, kept saying; "I am he" (John 9:9, K.J.V.).
Does that make the blind beggar, God! Further more, the beggar when questioned
about Jesus who had healed him, replied to Jews; "And he said, "He is a
prophet." (John 9:17).
Question No.13
Apostle Mark records in 16:19; "...He (Jesus)
was received up into heaven, and sat down at the right hand of God." The
question is, who can have such an unparalleled privilege and distinction,
besides his own begotten Son? Is there anyone else who has been elevated
to that station, in any other scripture?
Answer No.13
Hot Tip
The Book of Revelation (symbolic and obscure
writings of uncertain authorship), records in 3:21 that Jesus sat down
with his Father on his Father's throne. You write, based upon injected
verse; Jesus sat down at the right hand side of God. Which one do you believe?
Question No.14
In the Epistle of Paul to Romans, it reads; "that
if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart
that God raised him from the dead, you shall be saved; for with the heart
man believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses,
resulting in salvation." (Roman 10:9-10, NASB). The salvation is assured
to us Christians who confess with our mouth and heart; Jesus Christ to
be our Lord. What do Muslims have for their salvation?
Answer No.14
This is a preferred verse with the evangelic
missionaries. It is one of the bases of the Christianity propagated by
Paul and needs to be addressed in detail and from various perspectives.
Note: The editors of the New Testament have created
confusion by translating the Greek word `Theos' (meaning, God) as "Lord".
And, the Greek word `Kurios' (meaning, Master, Owner, Head of a house)
as "Lord", as well. For those who consider Jesus to be God, it may not
make any difference, but for the rest it does.
I hope you will henceforth recognize "the dead"
and "the alive" to be two distinct entities and "un-equal", whenever you
think of the "Risen Jesus".
Hot Tip
"And there is no other God besides Me, A righteous
God and a Saviour; There is none except Me. `Turn to Me, and be saved,
all the ends of the earth; For I am God, and there is no other." Isaiah
45:21-22. (please also read Hosea 13:4). When God said; "all the ends of
the earth" He righteously meant it to be so. The era of "cross" should
make no difference.
BTW, if you truly accept the end part of the
quoted Isaiah, you have accepted the first half of the `Confession of Islamic
Faith' called "Shahadah".
Question No.15
From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a
very valid and legitimate three part question:-
(a) Was not Jesus God from the beginning?
Verse upholding (a); In the beginning was the
Word,
and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God. (John 1:1)
(b) Were not all things made through Jesus??
Verses upholding (b); He was in the beginning
with God.
All things came into being through him; and
apart from him nothing came into being that has come into being. (John
1:2-3)
(c) Was not Jesus made flesh and dwelt among
us???
Verse upholding ©; And the Word became flesh,
and dwelt among us,
and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only
begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
Answer No.15
This three part question is so often repeated,
collectively or individually, that I will try to answer them (God-willing),
from various perspectives. For an uncomplicated comprehension, I am going
to separate the three part question into three separate questions. In this
number fifteen, I will deal with part (a) above.
In the beginning was the `spoken word, command',
and the `spoken word, command' was with God, and the `spoken word, command'
was Divine. (John 1:1)
6. The LITERAL translation is not only logical
but it coincides perfectly with the prologue of the Book of Genesis. "In
the beginning God created the heavens and the earth." "And the God said,
Let there be light; and there was light." (Genesis 1:1 and 3)
7. You may now ask, why did I translate "Divine"
instead of "God" in the last line?. The answer is based upon the usage
of Greek grammar. In the second line, the phrase used by John for "God"
is `ho theo', meaning `the God'. In the last line it is simply `theo',
the definitive article `the' is not used. Why? Because, it is a predicate
of the subject `ho theo'. The predicate is used to denote the nature, quality,
attribute or property of the subject. Here the in this instance the nature
of the God's spoken command was Divine.
8. In `New translation of the Bible' (1922) by
the famous Dr. James Moffatt, it reads; "the Logos was Divine." And, also
in `The Complete Bible - An American Translation' (Smith-Goodspeed) and
`The Authentic New Testament' by Hugh J. Schonfield.
Please look for No. 16 and 17 for answers to
(b) and © above.
Hot Tip
Paul wrote; "...if any man is preaching to you
a Gospel contrary to which you received, let him be accursed (anathema)."
Gal. 1:9.
Question No.16
From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a
very
valid and legitimate three part question:-
(a) Was not Jesus God from the beginning?
Verse upholding (a); In the beginning was the
Word,
and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God. (John 1:1)
(b) Were not all things made through Jesus??
Verses upholding (b); He was in the beginning
with God.
All things came into being through him; and
apart from him nothing came into being that has come into being. (John
1:2-3)
(c) Was not Jesus made flesh and dwelt among
us???
Verse upholding ©; And the Word became flesh,
and dwelt among us,
and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only
begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
Answer No.16
Below is a response to part (b) above.
Part (a) has been replied under FAQ number 15.
Part © will be replied under FAQ number
17.
1. The opening word of John 1:2 in the Greek
text is `houtos' (3778), which translates `the same'. The usage of word
"He" in the above quote, is based upon the traditional concept of SUBSTITUTING
the Greek term "Logos" with "Jesus", as explained in FAQ 15.
2. In the King James Version, it reads; "The
same was in the beginning with God", which supports the above clarification.
3. Based upon the LITERAL translation of the
word "Logos" as explained in FAQ 15, the verse should read; "The same (i.e.
the spoken divine word, command) was in the beginning with the God." This
LITERAL translation coincides with the opening of the Old Testament. (Genesis
1:3,6,11,14,20 & 24).
4. In John 1:3 above, the Greek word used for
"him" is `autos' (846), which means; her, it (-self); (self-) the same;
(him-, my-, thy-,) self; etc. If one was to continue the LITERAL translation
from the beginning, the verse should read;
All things came into being through it; and apart
from it nothing came into being that has come into being. (John 1:3)
Here "it" stands for "the spoken divine word,
command."
5. For some reason, one was to quote Colossians
1:16 which reads;
"For in Him all things were created, both in
the heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions
or rulers or authorities - all things have been created through Him and
for Him." And, go on contending that in the above letter by Paul, "Him"
refers to "Jesus", and his/her beliefs are valid, please let him/her read
the following.
6. In `The Oxford Companion to the Bible", edited
by Bruce M. Metzger and Michael D. Coogan, published by the Oxford University
Press, on page 127, it reads; "The Pauline authorship of Colossians has
often been challenged over the last 160 years. The grounds for this questioning
concern the language and style of the letter; more recently it has been
argued that there are major differences between Colossians and the theology
of the main Pauline letters, particularly in relation to the person and
cosmic work of Christ, the Church as the body of Christ, and early Christian
tradition."
7. If all things, including men and women were
created through Jesus, then the righteous Jesus would not have told the
Pharisees that from the beginning "God" created man and woman. (Matt. 19:4).
8. However, if the person is unwilling to write-off
the so called canonical letter by Paul on the basis of the above two observations,
please ask him/her to read the quoted scripture below which unequivocally
tells us that "God" created man, made the earth and stretched out the heavens
with HIS OWN HANDS.
Hot Tip
"It is I who made the earth, and created man
upon it. I stretched out the heavens with My hands, And I ordained all
their host." (Isaiah 45:12). Please also read Psalms 147-148, where the
Psalmist bids Zion to "Praise your (their) God", who has done multitude
of things and created; the heavens, the heights, His angels, His hosts,
Sun, Moon, Stars and the waters that are above the heavens, by His own
Command.
Question No.17
From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a
very
valid and legitimate three part question:-
(a) Was not Jesus God from the beginning?
Verse upholding (a); In the beginning was the
Word,
and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God. (John 1:1)
(b) Were not all things made through Jesus??
Verses upholding (b); He was in the beginning
with God.
All things came into being through him; and
apart from him nothing came into being that has come into being. (John
1:2-3)
(c) Was not Jesus made flesh and dwelt among
us???
Verse upholding ©; And the Word became flesh,
and dwelt among us,
and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only
begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
Answer No.17
Below is a response to part © above.
Parts (a) and (b) have been replied under
FAQ 15 and 16.
1. To comprehend what apostle John wrote in
© above, one has to read what John wrote ten verses earlier, i.e.
in John 1:4. According to the LITERAL translation, in that verse, John
wrote; "In it was life; and the life was the light of men."
2. As demonstrated earlier the word "it" stands
for "Logos" (the divine command that was in the beginning with the God).
Consequently, "In it (in the God's command was life); and that life was
the light (the guidance, enlightenment) for men."
3. I have rendered "light" as the guidance
and enlightenment, because in 1:9 John wrote; "There was the true light
which, coming into the world, enlightens every man".
4. Unfortunately, "And the light shines in
the darkness; and the darkness did not comprehend it (him)." (John 1:5).
Note: In either case; the word "it" which
stands for God's command, or "him" which stands for Jesus, makes sense.
5. Going back to © above; "And the Word
became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of
the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth." (John 1:14).
What the apostle LITERALLY meant was;
"And the Logos (the God's command, which was
from the beginning with God, wherein was the life) became flesh, and dwelt
among us,..."
6. Briefly, the embodiment in flesh was of
"Logos" - the God's command, and NOT of the God. The conception of Jesus
within the womb of his mother, Virgin Mary, was in reality made possible
by an act of God's command - the "Logos". Jesus was neither God nor the
physical incarnation of God.
7. The entire text which reads; "and we be
held his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father" is written
within parentheses in the Kings James Version. Hence, it is considered
as the editor's enhanced notes or addendum.
8. As for the true meaning of the original
term used by John in his Gospel, for the mistranslated phrase "the only
begotten", please see the earlier answers.
Hot Tip
To those who prefer to contend;
(a) "and the Word (Jesus) was *with* God" (John
1:1).
(b) "He (Jesus) was in the beginning *with* God"
(John 1:2).
(c) "And the Word (Jesus) *became* flesh" (John
1:14)
they have no recourse but to admit that it was
either at the *beginning* or after the act of *becoming* happened, "Jesus"
who was "with" God or "became" flesh, had to be either an additional, other,
different, distinct, or dissimilar entity than the God. Now, having no
way to retreat, please read the following:
"No one can serve two masters;..." Matthew 6:24
If you wish choose the ONE and the only Master,
please read;
"Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible,
the only God,
be honour and glory forever and ever. Amen."
1 Timothy 1:17
Can any one deny; "Jesus" who dwelt among us,
was "visible"!
Question No.18
While declaring Christ's superiority to the Angels,
in the Epistle to the Hebrews, God said to Jesus:
1. Thou art My Son, Today I have begotten Thee.
1:5
2. Let all the Angels worship you. 1:6
3. Sit on My right hand, until I make thine enemies
thy footstool. 1:13
How can you deny these "Words of God"?
Answer No.18
1. Before I answer your question, please tell
me who was the author of this letter (Epistle) to the Hebrews from which
you have submitted the above "Words of God"? Before one places his/her
confidence in the quoted texts and builds up the faith, it is equitable
and fair to first identify the authorship of the letter.
2. Have you noticed that the name of the author,
which is invariably mentioned in the title (heading) of every Epistle,
is conspicuously missing in the Hebrews. To know the reason why, please
read the followings:
3. The King James Version is supposed to be the
most conservative biblical version. The editors of K.J.V. (New Revised
and Updated 6th, the Hebrew/Greek Key Study, Red Letter Edition), in their
introduction to the Epistle to the Hebrews, write:
-
"The author of the Book of Hebrews is unknown.
Martin Luther suggested that Apollos was the author...Tertullian said that
Hebrews was a letter of Barnabas...Adolf Harnack and J. Rendel Harris speculated
that it was written by Priscilla (or Prisca). William Ramsey suggested
that it was done by Philip. However, the traditional position is that the
Apostle Paul wrote Hebrews...Eusebius believed that Paul wrote it, but
Origen was not positive of Pauline authorship."
-
4. The traditional position that "Apostle Paul
wrote Hebrews" is seriously undermined by the fact that the Epistle to
Hebrews does not begin with his personal name. For your information, each
and every other Epistle of Paul begins with his personal name. The Hebrews
begin with God's name. Further, Paul had specified that his letters will
bear his signature.
-
5. The Epistle to the Hebrews is not listed in
the 6th century list of the manuscripts called Codex Claromon. This leads
to the suspicion that it could have been written at a later date.
-
6. The critics who have studied the text of Hebrews
suggest, it is not likely the work of Paul. It was written much later to
prove the superiority of God's Son (Jesus) over God's Prophets (Abraham
and others). In other words, the document was created by a pseudo author
to prove the superiority of Christianity over Judaism.
-
7. All the three quoted passages from the Hebrews
are in fact the direct quotes from Psalms. (Psalms 2:7; 97:7; 110:1). To
say that the Psalmist had written these Songs "about Jesus" and not "about
characters from their history" needs hard evidence, which is not to be
found in the Psalms. Lack of such evidences have lead the bible critics
to question:
-
Were the prophecies of the Old Testament fulfilled
by the history, or, the history was written to fulfil the prophecies? (May
I add, specially when the authorship is questioned, not by the outsiders,
but the insiders! KJV).
Hot Tip
Al-Hamdulillah (Praise be to "the God"), you
yourself have indirectly admitted, by submitting the above three quotations
that there is only ONE who is:
1. The Eternal 2. The Worthy of Prayers 3. The
Supreme.
Your quotes and my submissions:
1. Thou art My Son, Today I have begotten
Thee.
Yesterday, the Son did not exist.
"The God" alone is "The Eternal".
2. Let all the Angels worship you.
If you believe, since Angels worshipped Jesus,
`Jesus is Worthy of Prayers' then in the Garden of Gethsemane, Jesus "fell
on his face and prayed, saying, `My Father, if it is possible, let this
cup pass from me." (Matthew 26:39). Hence, the Heavenly Father - "The God"
is "The Worthy of Prayers" from Jesus, Angels and every one.
3. Sit on My right hand,....
Does not the above sentence clearly demonstrate
(manifest) that "The God" who articulated or commanded the above, was sitting
on the "Supreme Throne" and Jesus was standing and waiting to be told to
sit down, next to him? "The God" is "THE SUPREME".
Note: All the prophets, including Jesus used
to "fall on their faces" like we Muslims do, while praying.
See; Abraham, Genesis 17:3; Job, Job 1:20;
Moses and Aaron,
Numbers 16:22; Jesus, Mt.26:39.
Question No.19
Below is a question from Brother Muhammad Ali
Siddiqui
:-
Br. Assalamu alaykum
Here's a question. According to following verse
of Isaiah, Jesus was born and he was "everlasting father". How do u explain
this?
Wassalam
"Unto us a Child is born, unto us a son is given,
and the government shall be upon His shoulders. And His name shall be called
Wonderful Counselor, Almighty God, the Everlasting Father, the Prince of
Peace." Isaiah 9:6
Answer No.19
Jesus was not born according to the above verse
of Isaiah.
This and several others verses from the Book
of Isaiah have been *alluded* to Jesus Christ by the Christian clergy and
theologians. Majority of these allusions do not have the authenticated
supports.
In John's gospel there is a narration about
the multitude challenging Jesus by saying; "We have heard out of the Law
that the Christ is to remain forever; and how can you say, `The Son of
Man must be lifted up'? Who is this Son of Man?" John 12:34.
The theologians imply that the multitude was
alluding to the above quoted verse (Isaiah 9:6), while speaking of having
heard from the Law. Jesus Christ used to call himself, "Son of Man" (See
Matthew 16:13). Disciple Stephen before he was stoned to death called Jesus,
the "Son of Man" (Acts 7:55-56). However, Jesus is not the only person
in the Bible to be so called. God addressed Ezekiel as the "Son of Man"
(Ezekiel 2:1).
Notwithstanding the authentication of the
above allusion, here is an answer to your original question; how do you
explain Jesus was "the everlasting father"?
In the Bible, the term "everlasting" or "forever"
is often used as a figurative term and does not necessarily mean in its
literal sense, e.g., It says; "and David My servant shall be their prince
forever." Ezekiel 37:25.
The same goes for the use of the term "Father".
It does not necessarily mean; "the Heavenly Father" (God), or the biological.
Joseph is called a father to Pharaoh. Genesis
45:8, Abraham is called the father of a multitude of nations. Gen. 17:5,
and Job is called the father of the needy. Job 29:16. Again by theologians
alluding to Psalms 110;
Jesus is a called Priest or a Father of the
priesthood, forever.
Before some one reads the above quoted Isaiah
9:6 and wants to question; How do you explain the phrase;
"Almighty God", let me clear that issue in
advance.
"Almighty God" is a deliberate mistranslation
of the Hebrew phrase "El-Gibbor" used by Isaiah. The Hebrew phrase for
"God Almighty" is "El-Shadday". In the famous Hebrew and Chaldee Dictionary
by James Strong the word "gibbowr" or short "gibbor" (1368), is translated
as; warrior, tyrant:-champion, chief, X excel, giant, man, mighty (man,
one), strong (man), valiant man. The word "shadday" (7706), is translated
as, the Almighty:-Almighty. If one was to read the verses preceeding the
quoted Isaiah 9:6, the on going subject there is; "at the battle of Midian",
and "the booted warrior in the battle tumult".
Hot Tip
It is very interesting to read and note;
"And whoever shall speak a word against the
Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him; but whoever shall speak against the
Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the
age to come." Matthew 12:32.
Now please read and also note this;
"But the Comforter (Greek, Paraclete), the
Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, *He* will teach you
all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I said to you. (John
14:26).
If one was to honestly look at the historical
records of the Great Religious Teachers, and try to discover *He* "a male
salvific figure"; that came after Jesus, taught "all things", spoke of
Jesus and his teachings, he would but have to point his finger to the prophet
of Islam. The Christian traditions have indeed "confused" this "male salvific
figure" with "Spirit", in spite of the fact that the word "Spirit" (Greek,
`pneu'ma'), is of a neutral gender and is *always* referred to by the pronoun
"it". Below is a direct quote from the world famous `The Anchor Bible'
published by Doubleday & Company, Inc, Garden City, N.Y. 1970.
"Christian tradition has identified this figure
(Paraclete) as the Holy Spirit, but scholars like Spitta, Delafosse, Windisch,
Sasse, Bultmann, and Betz have doubted whether this identification is true
to the original picture and have suggested that the Paraclete was once
an independent salvific figure, later confused with the Holy Spirit." (page
1135).
Al-Hamdulillah, what a mighty statement of
truth.
Note: To read more on the subject of `Paraclete'
etc., please order
`Understanding the Bible - through Koranic messages'
written by me in 1989. Please send your cheque for $ 10 (within N.America);
$ 13 (outside N.America) to; A. M. Trust, P. O. Box 81075, BURNABY, B.C.
V5H 4K2, Canada.
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